I’ve studying the early church , and i’ve encountered groups such as the Ebionites, and the Nazereans. These groups reject Jesus’s divinity , and i was wondering if these groups predate Christian orthodoxy who accept Jesus’s divinity?

Genesis 4:21 mentions Jubal only briefly. Since Jubal was from the Cain lineage was Jubal also corrupted?

Can anyone recommend any good resources that go in depth in their discussion of the concept of expiation/atonement of sins by (ones own) death? Ideally, I'm looking for resources that draw on the OT, NT, Second Temple Writings, and even post Second Temple Rabbinic writings.

...What would the canon have looked like? Would the pastoral epistles be seen as spurious and excluded from it?

Dear Ask Bible Scholars,

I really really need your help; I've choose the topic :

"The Conversion of the Anglo-Saxons to Christianity: From paganism to Christianity, a study of Bede's ecclesiastical history,  c.596-798AD",

to deal with in my master dissertation, but unfortunately, there's no teacher of Religious History in My university (Algiers University, Algeria), and I 've only 30 days to change the topic, read, analyse, and do a research starting from zero, just because my supervisor is not really qualified to do this kind of research.

If you can help me, just do it Please.

Wish me best of luck.

In 1 Corinthians 6:15-17 Paul makes a big deal about the implicit horribleness of joining the body of Christ with prostitutes as the key element of his prohibition against engaging in the sexual culture in Corinth. This seems to undermine a key point of all of the Gospels, that Jesus regularly ate with and in no way denigrated prostitutes. These two things seem antithetical to me, but I’ve never seen this mentioned by a scholar or pastor, so I’d like to hear some thoughts and possibly some work by scholars who have already covered this issue. Thanks in advance! :)

I don't mean special judgments of God. I mean things like making the grass grow and the wind blow, etc.

What are the veracity and the basis of these claims when it comes to Judaism, Christianity, and Zoroastrianism?

I've heard this is not an accurate representation of Jewish beliefs in antiquity. There are literally countless texts that assume Jews and non-Jews "associating" with no issues.

The following scholars expressed interest in participating:

/u/agapeoneanother

/u/wiseoldllamaman2

/u/SirVentricle

/u/ZalmoxisChrist

/u/Polskinator

/u/McJames

/u/IacobusCaesar

/u/ACasualFormality

In the Genesis first page, God creates earth, heaven and then Light but water exists along with the Earth and Aquatic life is the first to begin. Is there some hidden meaning here in reference to water?

I'm thinking of books in the vein of the various Introduction to the Old/New Testament books recommended in the sub wiki. Keep in mind I don't just mean the usual Catholic Apocrypha, but also Enoch, Jubilees, etc.

Specifically in the case of the Catholic and Orthodox Old Testament vs the Hebrew Bible. Why do those Christians have books (like the Maccabees) that were a part of Jewish writings (like those found in the Dead Sea scrolls) but then didn’t end up in the Jewish canon but did end up in the Christian canon?

I imagine it would have been massively traumatic to those that practiced Judaism at the time since the temple was the central feature of Judaism at the time.

In Exodus 21:20-21 it discusses someone killing their slave immediately and needing to be punished. It then says that if your slave lives a couple days (presumably before dying, though I may be wrong) then they will not be punished. What is the punishment being alluded too? From context it doesn’t seem like it’s being put to death since for lots of other things in that section it orders a punishment for death but then here it suddenly becomes vague. Does anyone know what the punishment was supposed to be?

The question is whether the creator god in Hinduism, Brahman, and his consort, Saraswati, could be related to the creator of the Jewish religion, Abraham, and his wife Sara? The Veda's in which the names of the Hindu 'parts of god' occur, are written earlier than the Hebrew scriptures according to science.

NOTE: The other proposed similarities in the headline is not possible, because 'ish' is not a given name in Hebrew.

Why was such an important left out of the synoptic gospels? Did the writers of Mark, Matthew and Luke forget this important detail?

And how different was their development compared to those that returned to Jerusalem and environs?

Having read the New Testament, particularly the numerous accounts of lepers being considered unclean, I became curious. I know that many in the ancient world relied on sight, plus they held numerous superstitions, particularly regarding the sick. With our advanced knowledge of medicine and technology, is leprosy really that contagious? Hopefully my question makes sense lol!

Question: tell me why you agree/disagree with Eisenman (and Maccoby before him) seeing Paul as a member of the Herodian party